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Ugc Net Computer Science and Applications Mock Test I Mock Test For Computer Science and Applications
3. The functions mapping R into R are defined as :
f(x) = x3 – 4x, g(x) = 1
x2 + 1 and h(x) = x4.
Then find the value of the following composite functions :
hog(x) and hogof(x)
(1) (x2 + 1)4 and [(x3 – 4x)2 + 1]4
(2) (x2 + 1)4 and [(x3 – 4x)2 + 1]–4
(3) (x2 + 1)–4 and [(x2 – 4x)2 + 1]4
(4) (x2 + 1)–4 and [(x3 – 4x)2 + 1]–4
4. How many multiples of 6 are there between the following pairs of numbers ?
0 and 100 and –6 and 34
(1) 16 and 6 (2) 17 and 6
(3) 17 and 7 (4) 16 and 7
7. ECL is the fastest of all logic families. High speed in ECL is possible because transistors
are used in difference amplifier configuration, in which they are never driven into ____.
(1) Race condition (2) Saturation
(3) Delay (4) High impedance
9. Convert the octal number 0.4051 into its equivalent decimal number.
(1) 0.5100098 (2) 0.2096
(3) 0.52 (4) 0.4192
10. The hexadecimal equivalent of the octal number 2357 is :
(1) 2EE (2) 2FF
(3) 4EF (4) 4FE
11. Which of the following cannot be passed to a function in C++ ?
(1) Constant (2) Structure
(3) Array (4) Header file
12. Which one of the following is correct for overloaded functions in C++ ?
(1) Compiler sets up a separate function for every definition of function.
(2) Compiler does not set up a separate function for every definition of function.
(3) Overloaded functions cannot handle different types of objects.
(4) Overloaded functions cannot have same number of arguments.
13. Which of the following storage classes have global visibility in C/C++ ?
(1) Auto (2) Extern
(3) Static (4) Register
14. Which of the following operators cannot be overloaded in C/C++ ?
(1) Bitwise right shift assignment
(2) Address of
(3) Indirection
(4) Structure reference
Ugc Net Computer Science and Applications Mock Test
15. If X is a binary number which is power of 2, then the value of
X & (X – 1) is :
(1) 11….11 (2) 00…..00
(3) 100…..0 (4) 000……1
16. An attribute A of datatype varchar (20) has value ‘Ram’ and the attribute B of datatype
char (20) has value ‘Sita’ in oracle. The attribute A has _______ memory spaces and B
has _______ memory spaces.
(1) 20, 20 (2) 3, 20
(3) 3, 4 (4) 20, 4
17. Integrity constraints ensure that changes made to the database by authorized users do not
result into loss of data consistency. Which of the following statement(s) is (are) true w.r.t.
the examples of integrity constraints ?
(A) An instructor Id. No. cannot be null, provided Intructor Id No. being primary key.
(B) No two citizens have same Adhar-Id.
(C) Budget of a company must be zero.
(1) (A), (B) and (C) are true.
(2) (A) false, (B) and (C) are true.
(3) (A) and (B) are true; (C) false.
(4) (A), (B) and (C) are false.
19. Consider a schema R(MNPQ) and functional dependencies M → N, P → Q. Then the
decomposition of R into R1(MN) and R2(PQ) is ________.
(1) Dependency preserving but not lossless join
(2) Dependency preserving and lossless join
(3) Lossless join but not dependency preserving
(4) Neither dependency preserving nor lossless join
21. Which of the following is true for computation time in insertion, deletion and finding
maximum and minimum element in a sorted array ?
(1) Insertion – 0(1), Deletion – 0(1), Maximum – 0(1), Minimum – 0(l)
(2) Insertion – 0(1), Deletion – 0(1), Maximum – 0(n), Minimum – 0(n)
(3) Insertion – 0(n), Deletion – 0(n), Maximum – 0(1), Minimum – 0(1)
(4) Insertion – 0(n), Deletion – 0(n), Maximum – 0(n), Minimum – 0(n)
22. The seven elements A, B, C, D, E, F and G are pushed onto a stack in reverse order, i.e.,
starting from G. The stack is popped five times and each element is inserted into a queue.
Two elements are deleted from the queue and pushed back onto the stack. Now, one
element is popped from the stack. The popped item is ________.
(1) A (2) B
(3) F (4) G
24. If h is chosen from a universal collection of hash functions and is used to hash n keys into
a table of size m, where n ≤ m, the expected number of collisions involving a particular
key x is less than _______.
(1) 1 (2) 1/n
(3) 1/m (4) n/m
28. A packet whose destination is outside the local TCP/IP network segment is sent to _____.
(1) File server (2) DNS server
(3) DHCP server (4) Default gateway
29. Distance vector routing algorithm is a dynamic routing algorithm. The routing tables in
distance vector routing algorithm are updated _____.
(1) automatically
(2) by server
(3) by exchanging information with neighbour nodes
(4) with back up database
Ugc Net Computer Science and Applications Question Papers With Answers
30. In link state routing algorithm after construction of link state packets, new routes are
computed using :
(1) DES algorithm (2) Dijkstra’s algorithm
(3) RSA algorithm (4) Packets
34. The contents of Register (BL) and Register (AL) of 8085 microprocessor are 49H and
3AH respectively. The contents of AL, the status of carry flag (CF) and sign flag (SF)
after executing ‘SUB AL, BL’ assembly language instruction, are
(1) AL = 0FH; CF = 1; SF = 1
(2) AL = F0H; CF = 0; SF = 0
(3) AL = F1H; CF = 1; SF = 1
(4) AL = 1FH; CF = 1; SF = 1
36. There are three processes P1, P2 and P3 sharing a semaphore for synchronizing a variable.
Initial value of semaphore is one. Assume that negative value of semaphore tells us how
many processes are waiting in queue. Processes access the semaphore in following
order :
(a) P2 needs to access
(b) P1 needs to access
(c) P3 needs to access
(d) P2 exits critical section
(e) P1 exits critical section
The final value of semaphore will be :
(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) –1
(4) –2
40. Distributed operating systems consist of :
(1) Loosely coupled O.S. software on a loosely coupled hardware.
(2) Loosely coupled O.S. software on a tightly coupled hardware.
(3) Tightly coupled O.S. software on a loosely coupled hardware.
(4) Tightly coupled O.S. software on a tightly coupled hardware.
41. Software Engineering is an engineering discipline that is concerned with :
(1) how computer systems work.
(2) theories and methods that underlie computers and software systems.
(3) all aspects of software production
(4) all aspects of computer-based systems development, including hardware, software
and process engineering.
42. Which of the following is not one of three software product aspects addressed by
McCall’s software quality factors ?
(1) Ability to undergo change
(2) Adaptiability to new environments
(3) Operational characteristics
(4) Production costs and scheduling
44. The prototyping model of software development is :
(1) a reasonable approach when requirements are well-defined.
(2) a useful approach when a customer cannot define requirements clearly.
(3) the best approach to use for projects with large development teams.
(4) a risky model that rarely produces a meaningful product.
Computer Science and Applications Ugc Net Mock Test
45. A software design pattern used to enhance the functionality of an object at run-time is :
(1) Adapter (2) Decorator
(3) Delegation (4) Proxy
47. ________ refers loosely to the process of semi-automatically analyzing large databases to
find useful patterns.
(1) Datamining (2) Data warehousing
(3) DBMS (4) Data mirroring
48. Which of the following is/are true w.r.t. applications of mobile computing ?
(A) Travelling of salesman
(B) Location awareness services
(1) (A) true; (B) false.
(2) Both (A) and (B) are true.
(3) Both (A) and (B) are false.
(4) (A) false; (B) true.
49. In 3G network, W-CDMA is also known as UMTS. The minimum spectrum allocation
required for W-CDMA is _______.
(1) 2 MHz (2) 20 KHz
(3) 5 KHz (4) 5 MHz
50. Which of the following statements is/are true w.r.t. Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) ?
(A) ERP automates and integrates majority of business processes.
(B) ERP provides access to information in a Real Time Environment.
(C) ERP is inexpensive to implement.
(1) (A), (B) and (C) are false.
(2) (A) and (B) false; (C) true.
(3) (A) and (B) true; (C) false.
(4) (A) true ; (B) and (C) are false.
Ugc Net Mock Test Paper 2 Computer Science and Applications
1. Which of the following is an interrupt according to temporal relationship with system
clock ?
(1) Maskable interrupt (2) Periodic interrupt
(3) Division by zero (4) Synchronous interrupt
2. Which of the following is incorrect for virtual memory ?
(1) Large programs can be written
(2) More I/O is required
(3) More addressable memory available
(4) Faster and easy swapping of process
5. In 8085 microprocessor, the digit 5 indicates that the microprocessor needs
(1) –5 volts, +5 volts supply (2) +5 volts supply only
(3) –5 volts supply only (4) 5 MHz clock
6. In 8085, which of the following performs : load register pair immediate operation ?
(1) LDAX rp (2) LHLD addr
(3) LXI rp, data (4) INX rp
8. Which one is correct w.r.t. RDBMS ?
(1) primary key ⊆ super key ⊆ candidate key
(2) primary key ⊆ candidate key ⊆ super key
(3) super key ⊆ candidate key ⊆ primary key
(4) super key ⊆ primary key ⊆ candidate key
9. Let pk(R) denotes primary key of relation R. A many-to-one relationship that exists
between two relations R
1 and R2 can be expressed as follows :
(1) pk(R2) → pk(R1) (2) pk(R1) → pk(R2)
(3) pk(R2) → R1 ∩ R2 (4) pk(R1) → R1 ∩ R2
10. For a database relation R(A, B, C, D) where the domains of A, B, C and D include only
atomic values, only the following functional dependencies and those that can be inferred
from them are :
A → C
B → D
The relation R is in _______.
(1) First normal form but not in second normal form.
(2) Both in first normal form as well as in second normal form.
(3) Second normal form but not in third normal form.
(4) Both in second normal form as well as in third normal form.
13. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct ?
(1) Persistence is the term used to describe the duration of phosphorescence.
(2) The control electrode is used to turn the electron beam on and off.
(3) The electron gun creates a source of electrons which are focussed into a narrow
beam directed at the face of CRT.
(4) All of the above
Ugc Net Computer Science and Applications Online Mock Test I Ugc Net Computer Science and Applications Mock Test
16. Below are the few steps given for scan-converting a circle using Bresenham’s Algorithm.
Which of the given steps is not correct ?
(1) Compute d = 3 – 2r (where r is radius)
(2) Stop if x > y
(3) If d < 0, then d = 4x + 6 and x = x + 1
(4) If d ≥ 0, then d = 4 ∗ (x – y) + 10, x = x + 1 and y = y + 1
17. Which of the following is/are side effects of scan conversion ?
a. Aliasing
b. Unequal intensity of diagonal lines
c. Overstriking in photographic applications
d. Local or Global aliasing
(1) a and b (2) a, b and c
(3) a, c and d (4) a, b, c and d
19. Which of the following are not regular ?
(A) Strings of even number of a’s.
(B) Strings of a’s, whose length is a prime number.
(C) Set of all palindromes made up of a’s and b’s.
(D) Strings of a’s whose length is a perfect square.
(1) (A) and (B) only (2) (A), (B) and (C) only
(3) (B), (C) and (D) only (4) (B) and (D) only
21. Given the following statements :
(A) A class of languages that is closed under union and complementation has to be
closed under intersection.
(B) A class of languages that is closed under union and intersection has to be closed
under complementation.
Which of the following options is correct ?
(1) Both (A) and (B) are false. (2) Both (A) and (B) are true.
(3) (A) is true, (B) is false. (4) (A) is false, (B) is true.
25. Suppose there are n stations in a slotted LAN. Each station attempts to transmit with a
probability P in each time slot. The probability that only one station transmits in a given
slot is _______.
(1) nP(1 – P)n – 1 (2) nP
(3) P(1 – P)n – 1 (4) nP(1 – P)n – 1
26. Station A uses 32 byte packets to transmit messages to station B using sliding window
protocol. The round trip delay between A and B is 40 milliseconds and the bottleneck
bandwidth on the path between A and B is 64 kbps. The optimal window size of A is
________.
(1) 20 (2) 10
(3) 30 (4) 40
27. Let G(x) be generator polynomial used for CRC checking. The condition that should be
satisfied by G(x) to correct odd numbered error bits, will be :
(1) (1 + x) is factor of G(x) (2) (1 – x) is factor of G(x)
(3) (1 + x2) is factor of G(x) (4) x is factor of G(x)
28. In a packet switching network, if the message size is 48 bytes and each packet contains a
header of 3 bytes. If 24 packets are required to transmit the message, the packet size is
________.
(1) 2 bytes (2) 1 byte
(3) 4 bytes (4) 5 bytes
Computer Science and Applications Mock Test Paper 2 I Ugc Net Computer Science and Applications Mock Test
30. A node X on a 10 Mbps network is regulated by a token bucket. The token bucket is filled
at a rate of 2 Mbps. Token bucket is initially filled with 16 megabits. The maximum
duration taken by X to transmit at full rate of 10 Mbps is _________ secs.
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
32. Any decision tree that sorts n elements has height ________.
(1) Ω(lg n) (2) Ω(n)
(3) Ω(n lg n) (4) Ω(n2)
33. Red-black trees are one of many search tree schemes that are “balanced” in order to
guarantee that basic dynamic-set operations take ________ time in the worst case.
(1) O(1) (2) O(lg n)
(3) O(n) (4) O(n lg n)
34. The minimum number of scalar multiplication required, for parenthesization of a matrixchain product whose sequence of dimensions for four matrices is <5, 10, 3, 12, 5> is
(1) 630 (2) 580
(3) 480 (4) 405
35. Dijkstra’s algorithm is based on
(1) Divide and conquer paradigm (2) Dynamic programming
(3) Greedy Approach (4) Backtracking paradigm
Ugc Net Computer Science and Applications Live Mock Test
41. Which of the following HTML code will affect the vertical alignment of the table content ?
(1) <td style = “vertical-align : middle”> Text Here </td>
(2) <td valign = “centre”> Text Here </td>
(3) <td style = “text-align : center”> Text Here </td>
(4) <td align = “middle”> Text Here </td>
44. Which of the following are facts about a top-down software testing approach ?
I. Top-down testing typically requires the tester to build method stubs.
II. Top-down testing typically requires the tester to build test drivers.
(1) only I (2) Only II
(3) Both I and II (4) Neither I nor II
48. A software company needs to develop a project that is estimated as 1000 function points
and is planning to use JAVA as the programming language whose approximate lines of
code per function point is accepted as 50. Considering a = 1.4 as multiplicative factor,
b = 1.0 as exponention factor for the basic COCOMO effort equation and c = 3.0 as
multiplicative factor, d = 0.33 as exponention factor for the basic COCOMO duration
equation, approximately how long does the project take to complete ?
(1) 11.2 months (2) 12.2 months
(3) 13.2 months (4) 10.2 months
49. A memory management system has 64 pages with 512 bytes page size. Physical memory
consists of 32 page frames. Number of bits required in logical and physical address are
respectively :
(1) 14 and 15 (2) 14 and 29
(3) 15 and 14 (4) 16 and 32
52. Some of the criteria for calculation of priority of a process are :
a. Processor utilization by an individual process.
b. Weight assigned to a user or group of users.
c. Processor utilization by a user or group of processes
In fair share scheduler, priority is calculated based on :
(1) only (a) and (b) (2) only (a) and (c)
(3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) only (b) and (c)
Nta Net Computer Science and Applications Mock Test
53. One of the disadvantages of user level threads compared to Kernel level threads is
(1) If a user level thread of a process executes a system call, all threads in that process
are blocked.
(2) Scheduling is application dependent.
(3) Thread switching doesn’t require kernel mode privileges.
(4) The library procedures invoked for thread management in user level threads are
local procedures.
54. Which statement is not correct about “init” process in Unix ?
(1) It is generally the parent of the login shell.
(2) It has PID 1.
(3) It is the first process in the system.
(4) Init forks and execs a ‘getty’ process at every port connected to a terminal.
57. In Artificial Intelligence (AI), what is present in the planning graph ?
(1) Sequence of levels (2) Literals
(3) Variables (4) Heuristic estimates
58. What is the best method to go for the game playing problem ?
(1) Optimal Search (2) Random Search
(3) Heuristic Search (4) Stratified Search
61. Given the following two statements :
A. L = {w|na(w) = nb(w)} is deterministic context free language, but not linear.
B. L = {an bn} ∪ {an b2n} is linear, but not deterministic context free language.
Which of the following options is correct ?
(1) Both (A) and (B) are false. (2) Both (A) and (B) are true.
(3) (A) is true, (B) is false. (4) (A) is false, (B) is true.
62. Which of the following pairs have different expressive power ?
(1) Single-tape-turing machine and multi-dimensional turing machine.
(2) Multi-tape turing machine and multi-dimensional turing machine.
(3) Deterministic push down automata and non-deterministic pushdown automata.
(4) Deterministic finite automata and Non-deterministic finite automata
63. Which of the following statements is false ?
(1) Every context-sensitive language is recursive.
(2) The set of all languages that are not recursively enumerable is countable.
(3) The family of recursively enumerable languages is closed under union.
(4) The families of recursively enumerable and recursive languages are closed under reversal.
Ugc Net Mcq Mock Test For Computer Science and Applications
67. From the given data below :
a b b a a b b a a b
which one of the following is not a word in the dictionary created by LZ-coding (the
initial words are a, b) ?
(1) a b (2) b b
(3) b a (4) b a a b
68. With respect to a loop in the transportation table, which one of the following is not correct ?
(1) Every loop has an odd no. of cells and atleast 5.
(2) Closed loops may or may not be square in shape.
(3) All the cells in the loop that have a plus or minus sign, except the starting cell, must
be occupied cells.
(4) Every loop has an even no. of cells and atleast four.
69. At which of the following stage(s), the degeneracy do not occur in transportation problem ?
(m, n represents number of sources and destinations respectively)
(a) While the values of dual variables ui and vj cannot be computed.
(b) While obtaining an initial solution, we may have less than m + n – 1 allocations.
(c) At any stage while moving towards optimal solution, when two or more occupied
cells with the same minimum allocation become unoccupied simultaneously.
(d) At a stage when the no. of +ve allocation is exactly m + n – 1.
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a), (c) and (d)
(3) (a) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
72. A neuron with 3 inputs has the weight vector [0.2 –0.1 0.1]T and a bias θ = 0. If the input
vector is X = [0.2 0.4 0.2]T then the total input to the neuron is :
(1) 0.20 (2) 1.0
(3) 0.02 (4) –1.0
73. Which of the following neural networks uses supervised learning ?
(A) Multilayer perceptron
(B) Self organizing feature map
(C) Hopfield network
(1) (A) only (2) (B) only
(3) (A) and (B) only (4) (A) and (C) only
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