[2023] Ugc Net Environmental Science Mock Test-Mcq With Question Answer Pdf

Ugc Net Environmental Science Mock Test I Mock Test For Environmental Science

1. Which of the following methods is generally not adopted for the safe disposal of
biomedical waste ?
(1) Incineration (2) Hydroclaving
(3) Landfilling (4) Shredding after disinfection

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2. Which of the following prompted the Govt. of India to enact Environment (Protection)
Act, 1986 ?
(1) River Ganga Water Pollution (2) Endosulfan tragedy in Kerala
(3) London Smog (4) Bhopal Gas Tragedy

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3. Protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding of forest and wildlife is
emphasized in constitution of India under the Article
(1) 48 A (2) 21
(3) 47 (4) 46

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4. Environmental Relief Fund was established under the provisions of
(1) The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
(2) The Indian Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972
(3) The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991
(4) The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980

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5. A type of lake that forms in the depression of the earth’s crust between two parallel faults
is known as
(1) Grade lake (2) Surface lake
(3) Graben lake (4) Glacial lake

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6. In case of plumes from a tall stack located on flat terrain ‘Lofting’ type of plume
behaviour is observed when in the atmosphere
(1) inversion conditions prevail below the stack height.
(2) strong lapse rate conditions exist.
(3) inversion conditions exist above the stack height.
(4) weak lapse rate conditions exist.

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7. Turbulent updrafts and downdrafts flows are an example of
(1) Synoptic scale phenomena (2) Planetary scale phenomena
(3) Meso-scale phenomena (4) Micro-scale phenomena

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8. A niche of the species where there is no competition from other species is called
(1) hyper volume niche (2) habitat
(3) fundamental niche (4) realized niche

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9. Dissipative process of energy during photosynthesis in a plant is
(1) Decomposition (2) Senescence
(3) Respiration (4) Mineralization of humus

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Ugc Net Environmental Science Mock Test

10. Which of the following substances is generally not considered toxic ?
(1) Carbonic acid (2) Carbon monoxide
(3) Acetaldehyde (4) Benzene

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11. Percentage of tropospheric ozone in relation to total atmospheric ozone is about
(1) 90% (2) 10%
(3) 50% (4) 80%

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12. Among the following, which one is the most hazardous chemical in the atmosphere ?
(1) Dioxin (2) Carbon monoxide
(3) Halons (4) CFCs

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13. The technique, which is fastest for measuring organic carbon is,
(1) COD (2) BOD5
(3) BOD7 (4) TOC

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14. With increase in temperature, the specific conductivity of water
(1) remains unchanged (2) increases
(3) decreases (4) makes the water turbid

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15. According to ZSI (GOI), which one of the following birds declined by 99% ?
(1) Sparrow (2) Pink-headed Duck
(3) Pond heron (4) White backed Vulture

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16. According to Convention on International Trade in Endangered species (CITES) COP 17,
which one of the following is transferred from CITES Appendix II to Appendix I by
January 2017.
(1) Gorilla (2) Pangolin
(3) Tapir (4) Mongoose

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17. Taxonomic diversity of a region with several ecosystems is :
(1) Alpha diversity (2) Beta diversity
(3) Gamma diversity (4) Sigma diversity

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18. Soil water available to roots is
(1) Surface water (2) Hygroscopic water
(3) Gravitational water (4) Capillary water

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Ugc Net Environmental Science Question Papers With Answers

20. The point at which the light intensity is just enough to produce energy by photosynthesis
which equal to the energy used in respiration is called
(1) Equal point (2) Regulatory point
(3) Compensation point (4) Complementary point

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21. The global pattern of prevailing winds drives the cell – like circulation pattern of ocean
currents called
(1) Trade winds (2) Gyres
(3) Jet Streams (4) Shallow drifts

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22. As the number of species in a food web increases
(1) Food chain length tends to increase.
(2) System tends to be unstable.
(3) Energy flow decreases.
(4) System tends to collapse completely.

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23. Each degree of latitude on the earth’s surface represents approximately
(1) 91 km (2) 101 km
(3) 111 km (4) 121 km

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24. Remote sensing satellites for earth observation are normally located in
(1) Elliptical orbit (2) Sun-synchronous orbit
(3) Geo-synchronous orbit (4) Equatorial orbit

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25. Asian Ministerial Conference on Disaster Risk Reduction – 2016 (AMCDRR – 2016) was
held in
(1) Bangkok (2) Beijing
(3) New Delhi (4) Colombo

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26. Groundwater movement depends on the following characteristics of rock materials.
(a) Porosity
(b) Permeability
(c) specific yield
(d) specific retention capacity
Choose the correct code :
(1) (a) only (2) (a) and (b) only
(3) (a), (b) and (c) only (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

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27. Magma starts to crystallise when it loses heat during its upward rise to shallower level
from a deep source. Which among the following is Bowen’s Reaction Series ?
(1) Pyroxene, Hornblende, Olivine, Mica, Quartz
(2) Olivine, Pyroxene, Hornblende, Mica, Quartz
(3) Hornblende, Olivine, Mica, Pyroxene, Quartz
(4) Olivine, Pyroxene, Hornblende, Mica, Quartz

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28. A 2000 MW dam has maximum head of 200 m. What is the rate of falling water on the
turbines ? (Neglect losses)
(1) ~ 102.00 m3/s (2) ~ 1560.24 m3/s
(3) ~ 1020.41 m3/s (4) ~ 800.00 m3/s

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Environmental Science Ugc Net Mock Test

30. The maximum efficiency of hydrogen fuel cell is
(1) 0.96 (2) 0.92
(3) 0.83 (4) 0.72

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31. In a biogas digestor having biomass and animal wastes as feed, for optimum methane
production, the value of pH should be such that initially
(1) pH is in the range 6.6 to 7 (2) pH < 6.2
(3) pH is in the range 7 to 7.2 (4) pH is in the range 7.6 to 8

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32. Which of the following statements is true in relation to solar flat plate collectors ? Glazing
(glass or plastic) above the absorber plate ?
(1) Reduces convection losses
(2) Reduces conduction losses
(3) Reduces conduction and radiation losses
(4) Enhances the absorption of solar radiation onto the absorber plate.

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33. Marine pollution is caused by
a. Sewage
b. Land runoff
c. Oil spills
d. Ocean mining
Choose the correct code :
(1) a, c, and d only (2) c and d only
(3) a, b, c and d (4) d, c, b only

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34. Which of the following wave properties is not taken advantage of in controlling noise ?
(1) Absorption (2) Damping
(3) Interference (4) Diffraction

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35. The reaction O
2 → 2O, which occurs in the stratosphere, does not occur in the troposphere
to produce ozone due to
(1) lower tropospheric temperature (2) absence of λ < 242 nm radiation
(3) high air pressure (4) high gas molecule concentrations

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36. The most important global sink process for aerosols is
(1) Interception (2) Sedimentation
(3) Impaction (4) Wet deposition

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37. Identify the correct sequence with reference to environmental clearance process for new
projects :
(1) Appraisal → Screening → Scoping → Public Consultation
(2) Screening → Scoping → Public Consultation → Appraisal
(3) Scoping → Public Consultation → Appraisal → Screening
(4) Public Consultation → Appraisal → Screening → Scoping

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38. Which of the following elements has the longest oceanic residence time ?
(1) Iron (2) Lead
(3) Calcium (4) Sodium

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39. The purpose of offshore islands is focussed for site or landscape restoration to
(1) provide linkage between movement and genetic interchange of species.
(2) foster populations of endangered species without native or introduced predators.
(3) increase the availability of habitats.
(4) increase the stabilization of surface cover and protect the animal corridor on land.

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Ugc Net Mock Test Paper 2 Environmental Science

41. Which of the following can be used for valuing environmental amenities ?
a. Hedonic pricing
b. Travel cost
c. Contingent valuation
Choose the correct code :
(1) a only (2) b only
(3) a, b and c (4) b and c only

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42. A graphical representation where frequencies are plotted against class intervals is called
(1) stem and leaf plot (2) Pie chart
(3) Histogram (4) Box plot

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43. Which one of the following is a density – independent factor that limits the size of the
natural population ?
(1) Predation (2) Territoriality
(3) Severe drought (4) Sex ratio

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44. In a multiple regression analysis, if the variance of the observed variable Y is 1.57 and
variance of the residue is 0.52, then R-square value is
(1) 0.85 (2) 0.67
(3) 0.72 (4) 0.52

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45. The median value of the following data :
1, 2, 3, 5, 8 and 100 ; is
(1) 3 (2) 5
(3) 4 (4) 20

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46. Exchangeable sodium percentage (ESP) > 40, and pH > 9.8 are characteristic of
(1) Acidic soil (2) Weak saline soil
(3) Strongly saline soil (4) Eroded soil

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47. The climate meet COP-22 was held in which country ?
(1) Morocco (2) South Africa
(3) Malaysia (4) Indonesia

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48. In an aquatic system, the presence of noxious gases such as H2S and CH4 is associated
with
(1) abundant algal growth (2) oxygen depletion
(3) absence of macrophytic vegetation (4) excess of dissolved oxygen

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49. Severe drought is declared if
(1) Deficit of rainfall is more than 50 percent of the normal.
(2) Deficit of rainfall varies between 25-45 percent of the normal.
(3) Rainfall deficit exceeds 25 percent of the normal.
(4) Rainfall deficit is between 15-25 percent of the normal.

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Ugc Net Environmental Science Online Mock Test I Ugc Net Environmental Science Mock Test

1. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Vertical velocity often equals or exceeds horizontal velocity in mesoscale
meteorological systems.
Reason (R) : Rising thermals are susceptible to undergo non-hydrostatic processes such
as buoyant acceleration or acceleration through a narrow mountain pass.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.

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3. Mixing height during night is typically in the range
(1) < few hundred metres (2) 1 km – 2 km
(3) 2 km – 3 km (4) 3 km – 4 km

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4. At a given urban location, the temperature at an elevation of 25 m above ground is 15 °C.
If the inversion conditions prevail and the environmental lapse rate is 1.25 °C per 100 m,
the temperature at an elevation of 200 m will be
(1) 12.5 °C (2) 17.5 °C
(3) 12.75 °C (4) 17.25 °C

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5. When the temperature of the atmosphere falls at a rate greater than the dry adiabatic lapse
rate, the atmosphere is
(1) stable (2) highly stable
(3) unstable (4) conditionally unstable

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6. Gross Primary Productivity (GPP) of an ecosystem is
(1) net rate of carbon gain by the plant after respiration losses.
(2) total energy used to convert the sugar during growth.
(3) photosynthetic fixation rate of atmospheric carbon dioxide.
(4) rate of release of oxygen through respiration of a plant.

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7. The oxygen atom species, which reacts with water to form hydroxyl radical, is produced
by the photodissociation of
(1) O2 (2) O3
(3) NO2 (4) H2O

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9. Identify the incorrect statement about carbon isotopes :
(1) C-13 is less abundant in vegetation than in oceans.
(2) C-12 is most abundant in nature.
(3) C-14 is absent in fossil fuels.
(4) C-13 is used for carbon-dating.

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Environmental Science Mock Test Paper 2 I Ugc Net Environmental Science Mock Test

10. Among the following insecticides, which one is relatively more soluble in water ?
(1) Aldicarb (2) Carbaryl
(3) Malathion (4) Aldrin

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11. At 25 °C, hydrogen ion concentration in an environmental aqueous solution is found to be
5 × 10–4 mol L–1. This implies that the concentration of hydroxyl ions is
(1) 2 × 10–3 mol L–1 (2) 1 × 10–7 mol L–1
(3) 2 × 10–11 mol L–1 (4) 2 × 10–19 mol L–1

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12. Identify the incorrect statement about humus.
(1) Humus acts as a reservoir of nitrogen for plants.
(2) By decaying, humus supplies nitrogen to plants.
(3) Its rate of decay and rate of nitrogen release follow plant growth.
(4) Rate of nitrogen release to plants is slow during warm growing season and fast
during winter months.

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15. Characteristics of successful invasive plant species are :
a. Rapid growth and early flowering.
b. High phenotypic plasticity
c. Production of large number of seeds
Choose the correct answer :
(1) a only (2) a and b only
(3) b and c only (4) a, b and c

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16. Drugs that prevent the formation of bacterial cell wall are
(1) Quinolones (2) Beta-lactams
(3) Tetracyclines (4) Aminoglycocides

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17. As a result of El Nino, it has been observed that phytoplankton productivity increases in
Eastern Indian Ocean around Indonesia and Gulf of Mexico. This increase is probably due to
(a) Increased rainfall
(b) More nutrient inflow
(c) Turbulence in surface waters
Codes :
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)

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18. Vermi composting process depends on
(a) Quality of organic resources
(b) Types of earthworms
(c) Moisture content of the organic wastes
Choose the correct answer :
(1) (a) only (2) (a) and (b) only
(3) (b) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)

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19. Photosynthesis in plants is associated with
(a) decrease in entropy
(b) increase in entropy
(c) increase in Gibbs free energy
Choose the correct answer :
(1) (a) only (2) (b) only
(3) (b) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)

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Online Mock Test For Ugc Net Environmental Science Paper 2

20. The predominant bioparticulate allergens in the air are
(1) Insect debris and house dust mites
(2) Pollen grains and fungal spores
(3) Animal dander and house dust
(4) Wool particles and cockroach calyx

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21. The enhancement of the fitness of a recipient individual by acts that reduce the
evolutionary fitness of the donor individual is
(1) Amensalism (2) Altruism
(3) Commonsalism (4) Parasitism

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22. The greater proportion of the edges in a national park indicates a
(a) less functional habitat
(b) highly functional habitat
(c) degraded habitat
Choose the correct answer :
(1) (a) only (2) (a) and (c) only
(3) (b) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)

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23. The change in species composition that is imposed by factors external to the biotic
community is known as
(1) Autogenic succession (2) Allogenic succession
(3) Xerarch (4) Hydrarch

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24. Which ecosystem type produces maximum litter mass ?
(1) Tropical rain forest (2) Tropical seasonal forest
(3) Temperate deciduous forest (4) Boreal forest

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25. Cyclomorphism is a phenomenon observed in certain planktonic crustaceans and is
generally attributed as a response to
(a) changes in environmental variables of water.
(b) ensure adaptive significance.
(c) growth, reproduction and sudden genetic change
Codes :
(1) (a) and (c) only (2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a) and (b) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)

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26. Microbes in the environment are likely to be
I. living in biofilms on surfaces.
II. non-culturable
III. living solitary and planktonic lines
Choose the correct code :
(1) I only (2) II and III only
(3) I and III only (4) I and II only

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29. Which group of following factors determine the discharge of a stream ?
(1) Width, length and depth (2) Width, length and velocity
(3) Width, depth and velocity (4) Length, depth and run-off

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Ugc Net Environmental Science Live Mock Test

30. Which among the following zones has the highest erosion rate in the journey of a river ?
(1) Head water (2) Potamon
(3) Mouth (4) Sediment transforming zone

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33. According to Darcy’s law for ground water movement, velocity is proportional to
(1) Hydraulic gradient. (2) Square of hydraulic gradient.
(3) Square root of hydraulic gradient, (4) Reciprocal of hydraulic gradient.

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34. Which of the following types of coal has maximum ash content (%) ?
(1) Anthracite (2) Sub-Bituminous
(3) Lignite (4) High volatile Bituminous

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35. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The amount of energy available in a single fusion event is small compared
to a fission event.
Reason (R) : Isotopes of hydrogen are much lighter than uranium.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.

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36. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The thermal efficiency of nuclear reactors is lower than that of fossil
fuelled steam plants.
Reason (R) : Temperature of water generating stream in a nuclear reactor has relatively
lower values compared to fossil fuelled steam plants.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.

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37. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Natural gas contributes less to smog formation than gasoline.
Reason (R) : Unburnt CH4 molecules are considerably less reactive with respect to the
free radical chemistry for smog than the hydrocarbon molecules with more than one
C atom.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.

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38. Consider ocean waves of amplitude 2.0 m and wavelength 200 m. Assuming the gravity to
be the only active force, the power available per metre perpendicular to the propagation of
the wave is
(1) 86.24 kW m–1 (2) 172.48 kW m–1
(3) 344.90 kW m–1 (4) 800.00 kW m–1

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39. A wind mill has cross-sectional area 25.0 m2. The wind speed is 6.0 m/s. What will be the
power generated by the wind mill in the Betz limit ?
(1) ~ 2.064 kW (2) ~ 3.483 kW
(3) ~ 11.162 kW (4) ~ 18.321 kW

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Nta Net Environmental Science Mock Test

40. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The power output from an OTEC system installed at a tropical site is
steady.
Reason (R) : At tropical sites, the temperatures of warm surface water and cold water in
the depth of ocean hardly vary from season to season.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.

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42. The potency factor of CHCl3 is 6.1 × 10–3 kg-day/mg. The concentration in drinking water
that would result in 2 × 10–6 risk for a 70-kg man, who drinks 2L/day throughout of his
life, is
(1) 11.4 μg/L (2) 20.6 μg/L
(3) 6 μg/L (4) 25 μg/L

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43. Which of the following compounds used for disinfection of water is not stable but is
prepared in situ ?
(1) Cl2 (2) Ca(OCl)2
(3) NaOCl (4) HOCl

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44. Identify the incorrect statement from the following regarding soil pollution by heavy
metals :
(1) Soils act as a sink for heavy metals.
(2) Humic materials have great affinity for heavy metal cations.
(3) Humic materials extract heavy metals from soil water by forming complexes.
(4) Complexes formed by humic acids are normally water soluble.

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45. A point source of noise produces a sound of 60 dB at a distance of 10 m from it. If the
sound is measured at a distance of 40 m, what will be its value ?
(1) 48 dB (2) 54 dB
(3) 57 dB (4) 44 dB

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46. Identify the incorrect statement with regard to water purification by coagulation.
(1) Particles suspended in water are in colloidal form.
(2) Suspended particles carry a positive charge.
(3) Suspended particles due to similar charge repel each other.
(4) When alum is added it works as a coagulant.

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48. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Ozone depletion is much less over arctic stratosphere than over Antarctic
stratosphere.
Reason (R) : Antarctic atmosphere is on an average about 10 °C cooler than the arctic
stratosphere.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.

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51. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The ecological restoration is a difficult proposition both in principle and
in practice.
Reason (R) : Identity and population sizes of plants and animals once present at a
particular site are largely unknown.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.

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52. During the EIA process under the EIA notification of September 14, 2006, no public
hearing is required for
(a) all A’ category projects
(b) all ‘B1’ category projects
(c) all ‘B2’ category projects
Choose the correct code :
(1) (a) only (2) (a) and (b) only
(3) (b) and (c) only (4) (c) only

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Ugc Net Mcq Mock Test For Environmental Science

53. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Evaporation of surface water is reduced due to black carbon in
atmosphere.
Reason (R) : Presence of aerosols having black carbon is responsible for dimming effect.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.

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55. In environmental Impact Assessment, the baseline studies describe the
(1) socio-economic mapping of the area.
(2) consequences of the development activity.
(3) assessment of the risk involved during project implementation.
(4) environmental setting existing in the project area.

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56. An ecosystem restoration project should have the outcomes which are
I. Specific II. Measurable
III. General IV. Realistic
V. Time bound
Choose the correct code :
(1) I, II, III, V (2) I, II, IV, V
(3) II, III, IV, V (4) I, II, III, IV

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57. When applied to field populations, Lotka-Volterra equations suffer from the following :
I. Competition coefficients are assumed to be constant.
II. Carrying capacity is assumed to be constant.
III. There are no time lags.
IV. Maximal rate of increase is assumed to be constant.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) I and II only
(2) II and III only
(3) II, III and IV only
(4) I, II, III and IV

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58. In a city, the daily per capita inhalation (m3) values of contaminated air over a period of 5
days are 6.3, 6.3, 6.2, 6.4 and 5.8, respectively. The Environmental Science mean with standard deviation
of the data is
(1) 6.2 + 0.02 (2) 6.2 + 0.23
(3) 6.0 + 0.15 (4) 6.2 + 0.18

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60. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : For power stations and polluting industries, tall stacks are installed.
Reason (R) : The maximum ground level concentration of a pollutant released from a
stack is inversely proportion to the height of the stack.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.

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61. Consider a box model for an airshed over a city and assume that the initial concentration
of a pollutant is zero and that the air entering the box is clean. If the length of the box is 10
km and the wind speed along the length of the box is 5 m/s, what is the time taken for the
pollutant concentration to reach ~ 95% of its final value ?
(1) 1 h 40 minutes (2) 1 h 7 minutes
(3) 33 minutes 20 seconds (4) 2 h 13 minutes 20 seconds

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62. For a Environmental Science size n = 16, the mean (X) value and standard deviation (S) are found to be –
5.667 and 0.934, respectively. If the population mean is μ = 5.2, then t – statistic is
(1) 0.5 (2) 0.47
(3) 1.76 (4) 2.0

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64. Which of the following convention/protocols/treaties is legally binding on the signatory
countries ?
(1) Basel Convention (2) Montreal Protocol
(3) Kyoto Protocol (4) Paris Agreement

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65. For untreated municipal wastewater, BOD/COD ratio is in the range
(1) 1.3 – 3 (2) 0.3 – 0.8
(3) 3.0 – 6.5 (4) > 10

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67. Consider following statements about the ozone hole ?
I. Ozone formation and destruction keeps on happening.
II. Ozone destruction rate is higher than its formation rate.
III. Ozone destruction rate is equal to its formation rate.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) I only (2) I and II only
(3) I and III only (4) III only

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68. Consider following statements about an estuary :
I. Estuary is the ecotonal region between fresh water and oceanic water.
II. This area is highly productive.
III. This area is highly unproductive.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) I only (2) I and II only
(3) III only (4) I and III only

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69. The ionic species, O+, O2+ and N2+ are found generally in
(1) Troposphere (2) Stratosphere
(3) Mesosphere (4) Heterosphere

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70. As part of recently signed international agreement on phasing out synthetic
hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), India will start phasing them out from the year
(1) 2019 (2) 2024
(3) 2028 (4) 2032

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71. In the tropospheric ozone formation reaction sequence, which of the following chemical
species does not act as a catalyst ?
(1) OH (2) HO2
(3) NO2 (4) O2

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